Please note most of these questions are gathered by me from students who have already taken certification exam and from google.
Hope you will find these useful !! All the best!
1.
Response Time:
a.
Starts when a user request enters the
dispatcher queue.
b.
Includes the marginal network time from
the user to the dispatcher queue.
c.
Includes Roll-in and Roll-out time.
d.
Includes the network time from the R/3
instance to the database.
e.
Does not include CPU time.
2.
Wait Time:
a.
Starts when user request is stored in
the dispatcher queue.
b.
Ends when the request starts to be
processed.
c.
Is the time the
request sits in the dispatcher queue.
d.
Is measured in microseconds.
e.
Cannot be measured.
3.
Load Time:
a.
Is the amount of time occupying the
work process.
b.
Is equal to Response Time – Wait Time.
c.
Is the time needed to load and generate
objects like ABAP source code.
d.
Is equal to Response Time – (Database
Request Time + Wait time).
e.
Is equal to database request time +
wait time.
4. Database Request Time:
a.
Is equal to Response Time – (Load Time
+ Wait time).
b.
Starts when a database request passes
through the database interface.
c.
Ends
when the database interface has delivered the result.
d.
Is the amount of time occupying the
workprocesses.
e.
Includes wait time.
5. A LOAD REPORT is displayed on SM50
when:
a.
A request is sent to the dispatcher.
b.
ABAP source code is read from the
database and generated (to the PXA).
c.
A request passes through the database
interface.
d.
A request is locked by a dialog
workprocess.
e.
ABAP programs create short dumps.
6.
The following information is available
from the Process Overview – SM50:
a.
The Operating System Process ID for
each workprocess.
b.
The type of workprocess, including DIA,
UPD, BTC, ENQ, MSG, SPO.
c.
The Semaphore resource being used.
d.
Top 40 CPU processes.
e.
Average response time.
7.
Which of the following may indicate
performance problems in terms of Average
Response time?
a.
Average CPU
time: less than 40% of average
response time
b.
Average
wait time: less than 10% of
average response time
c.
Average
load time: greater than 40%
of average response time
d.
Average DB request time: less than 40% of average response time
e.
Average roll-in time. greater than 20% of
average response time
8.
Significantly high wait time may be an
indication that:
a.
The enqueue workprocess is idle.
b.
There is a backlog of LOAD REPORTS.
c.
There are too many idle dialog
workprocesses.
d.
There are too many workprocesses for
the Dispatcher to service on one R/3 Instance.
e.
More work processes are needed to
service all the request in the request queue.
9.
The
following information is available from the Workload Monitor – ST03:
a.
Average Response Time for dialog
workprocesss
b.
Load Averages
c.
Average Wait Time
d.
Database Request Time Average
e.
Average Response Time for Update
workprocesses .
10.
The
following information is available from the Database Monitor – ST04:
a.
Data Buffer Size.
b.
Data Buffer Quality.
c.
Recursive Calls
d.
Database Request Time Average
e.
Parsed SQL requests held in the
database cache.
11.
The
Transaction Profile can be found in:
a.
The Process Overview
b.
The Database Monitor
c.
The Workload Monitor
d.
The Operating System Monitor
e.
ST03.
12.
The
Program Buffer can have a negative impact on dialog performance if:
a.
The Program Executable Area is
completely fragmented.
b.
Gaps equal Freespace
c.
Every new object loaded into the buffer
displaces an object that is already in the buffer.
d.
The number of object swaps continues to
increase.
e.
The abap/buffersize is not configured
the same on each R/3 instance in the system.
13.
Which
of the following is true regarding the Table Buffers?
a.
The three table buffers are Full,
Generic and Single Record.
b.
All read for updates bypass table
buffers.
c.
R/3 Table buffering is more efficient
than reading from the database, because more than one table index can be used.
d.
All R/3 table buffer accesses can be
analyzed using an SQL trace.
e.
Invalidations are data entry errors.
14.
Which
of the following are good candidates for table buffering?
a.
Any table that is less than 1 MB.
b.
Application tables because they are
frequently accessed.
c.
Many Customizing tables since they are
typically small, static tables.
d.
Any customer developed table that uses
more than one index.
e.
Any transparent table.
15.
Which
of the following use local memory ?
a.
Roll-first.
b.
Roll-area.
c.
Heap-nondia.
d.
Total heap.
e.
Roll-Buffer.
16.
Which
of the following use shared memory ?
a.
Heap-dia.
b.
Page-buffer.
c.
Extended memory.
d.
Roll-buffer.
e.
Roll area.
17.
Which
of the following are true statements ?
a.
Roll-first is a portion of the total
Roll Area.
b.
The amount of extended memory that one
dialog workprocess can use is limited by the user quota (ztta/roll-extension),
which can never be equal to or greater than the total amount of extended
memory.
c.
Virtual Memory is comprised of both
physical memory and OS swap.
d.
A dialog workprocess is dedicated to
one transaction when it goes to PRIV mode.
e.
When a transaction exceeds Total Heap
area, an ABAP short dump will occur.
18.
Which
of the following are true regarding abap/heaplimit?:
a.
An ABAP dump will always occur when a
dialog work process reaches the abap/heaplimit.
b.
When a dialog workprocess reaches
abap/heaplimit, it is flagged and the workprocess is killed (a new PID is
created) after the transaction has completed.
c.
The abap/heaplimit is the total amount
of HEAP memory that a dialog workprocess can use.
d.
Abap/heaplimit is a portion of the
total abap/buffersize.
e.
Abap/buffersize determines the size of
the abap/heaplimit.
19.
Which
of the following are true?:
a.
In non-dialog processing, extended
memory cannot be used until all of the Roll-first is used.
b.
In non-dialog processing, HEAP-NonDia
is used before extended memory is used.
c.
In non-dialog processing, the Roll
Buffer and the Page Buffer are used to hold temporary ABAP tables.
d.
The biggest difference between dialog
and non-dialog memory management is that non-dialog workprocesses do not use
Roll-area.
e.
Background workprocesses and dialog
workprocesses compete for space in the Roll buffer during peak activity on the
system.
20.
Important
statistics displayed in the Database Monitor (ST04) include:
a.
Logical reads
b.
Physical
reads
c.
Data buffer size and quality
d.
Shared pool size and quality
e.
Invalidations in the R/3 table buffers
21.
Which
of the following are true statements?
a.
Expensive SQL statements may reduce the
performance of the entire R/3 system.
b.
Indexes improve data access for tables,
including those that are loaded in R/3 generic table buffers.
c.
Physical reads are blocks that are read
from the database buffer.
d.
An SQL statement is efficient if many
blocks are read to find the required records.
e.
Logical reads are blocks that are read
from the database buffer.
22.
Which
of the following are good rules for creating secondary indexes?:
a.
Use few fields in the index (less than
5).
b.
Use only non-selective fields.
c.
Position the most selective fields at
the end of the index.
d.
Position the most selective fileds at
the beginning of the index.
e.
Use as many fields as possible to
narrow down the search.
23.
The
SQL Request area in ST04 contains:
a.
The number of SQL statements that have
accessed R/3 table buffers.
b.
Parsed SQL statements that have passed
through the database interface.
c.
Only the SELECT statements generated by
Oracle processes.
d.
All database exclusive locks.
e.
Only the SELECT statements in the REDO
log buffer.
24.
The
following will set a database lock:
a.
SELECT FOR UPDATE.
b.
Any ABAP program that executes a native
SQL command.
c.
Only the DELETE statements processed by
Oracle.
d.
Only SQL statements that access R/3
Basis system tables such as DDNTT.
e.
All table scans
25.
Transactions
ST10 and DB05 can be used to :
a.
determine detailed workload statistics
(STAT)
b.
detect incorrectly buffered tables in
the R/3 table buffers
c.
determine the relevant users on the
system
d.
identify dispatcher bottlenecks
e.
identify CPU bottlenecks
26.
ALE:
a.
is basically an interface
service which provides high level function modules for exchanging data between
two or more systems.
b.
has its own data storage tables.
c.
requires an EDI subsystem
d.
can only support R/3 systems.
e.
can be used to link R/3 Systems that are independent of
each other.
27.
IDOC’s can be created:
a.
only via transaction SPRO.
b.
by change pointers.
c.
by message entry for deferred
processing.
d.
directly.
e.
only via transaction BALE.
28.
TRFC’s:
a.
are a part of SAP’s functionality.
b.
are used by ALE for communication
between sender and receiver.
c.
require FTP.
d.
are called transactional since a number
of function modules are allowed to be bundled into a single LUW.
e.
are only used by ALE for customizing
integrity checks.
29.
Which of the following are IDOC
processing options? :
a.
Dispatch Control.
b.
FTP.
c.
Processing mode.
d.
Unit transfer type.
e.
LUW.
30
. An IDOC :
a.
is a transparent table.
b.
may used by ALE only if an EDI
subsystem exists on the network.
c.
may only contain master data.
d.
is always created on the receiving
partner system using an external program.
e.
stands for intermediate document.
31
. The sender and receiver of the IDOC
are defined in the:
a.
IDOC data records
b.
IDOC control record
c.
LUW
d.
IDOC status record
e.
subitem
32. From
SAP’s perspective, a LOGICAL SYSTEM corresponds to a:
a.
a database.
b.
a client.
c.
a company.
d.
a remote system.
e.
a remote database.
33. ALE customizing is done using:
a.
the
BABI generator
b.
transaction
SALE
c.
RSNAST00
d.
an
external warehouse management (WM) system
e.
SAP’s
Business Framework
34. Which of the following are true?
a.
For
performance reasons the TRFC queue should never be reorganized.
b.
The
TRFC queue consists of tables on both the sender and receiver of the
communication.
c.
The
TRFC queue cannot be monitored in R/3 since it is an external process.
d.
TRFC
refers to transactional RFC’s.
e.
IDOC
transfers between R/3 systems using TRFC’s do not require a logon and password.
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