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SAP Basis/Netweaver Tutorials, Monitoring, Administration(Certification) and FAQs


Thursday, 21 February 2013

SAP Basis/Netweaver Certification Question Set 7



Please note most of these questions are gathered by me from students who have already taken certification exam and from google. 

 Hope you will find these useful !! All the best!


Here are some Transport questions:


1)   Which of the following components indicate that R3 is a client / server system?

a. Multiple DB’s
b. Database server
c. 3 separate hardware servers (DB, applcn & presentation server)
d. Db service, app service & presentation service


2)   Which of the following is not contained in R/3 DB?

a. The R/3 Repository
b. The R/3 kernel
c. Customer Data
d. Transaction data
e. Customizing Data
f. The ABAP dictionary

3) Which of the following is correct in regard to R/3 clients?

a. The R/3 client has it’s own customer data and programs which are not
accessible to other clients within the same R/3 system.
b. An R/3 client has all R/3 repository objects and client independent
customizing with all other clients in the R/3 system
c. An R/3 client shares customizing and Applcn data with other clients in the
same R/3 system
d. An R/3 client enables you to separate applcn data from customizing data

4) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to SAP Client Concept

a. All customizing settings are client independent
b. A client has unique set of applcn data
c. A client has it’s own repository objects
d. All customizing settings are client dependant

5) Which of the following strategies enables R/3 customers to avoid making
modifications to SAP Std objects?

a. Using Enhancement techs such as Program exits & menu exits
b. Modifying SAP delivered programs
c. Changing SAP std functionality using the IMG
d. Performing customizing to provide the required functionality

6) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to IMG?

a. The IMG consists of series of customizing activities for defining a Companies
Business process
b. The IMG is a online resource providing the necessary info and steps to help
you implementing the R/3 applcn Modules
c. IMG is client independent
d. All of the above

7) Which of the following strategies enables an Enterprise to meet its business needs by changing or enhancing R/3 functionality

a. Maintaining application data using the Various R3 Business transactions in
the SAP Std
b. Using the ABAP workbench to create the read R/3 repository objects
c. Using customizing to modify R/3 programs after obtaining an access key from
OSS
d. Using customer Exits to enhance the functionality of existing SAP Objects

8) Which of the following statements are correct in regards to modifications

a. modification is a change to an SAP Std object
b. A modification must be registered using the SAP OSS (SSCR)
c. SAP recommends modification only if customer’s business meets cannot be
    me by customizing enhancement techs or customer dev
d. All the above

9) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to the customizing

a. Customizing enables R/3 applcn process to be set to reflect a companies
business needs
b. Customizing can be performed only from within IMG
c. Customizing is necessary because R/3 delivered w/o Business process.
d. None of the above

10) Which of the following is correct in regard to R/3 repository

a. Customers can develop new repository objects using tools in the ABAP
workbench.
b. Customer developed repository objects reside in the R/3 repository alongside
std repository objects
c. Customers can create & assign new repository objects to a development class
d. All of the above

11) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to critical client roles as recommended by SAP?

a. Customizing changes can be made in any client
b. All customizing & dev changes should be made in a single R/3 client
c. Repository object should be created and changed in R/3 Quality assurance
client (QAS)
d. Unit testing should take place in the customizing and dev client

12) Which of the following activities should not be performed within a system landscape
a. Customizing & dev changes are promoted to a QAS client before being
delivered to PRD
b. The R/3 system is upgraded to a new R/3 release
c. Dev changes are mad directly in the PRD client
d. Changes are assigned to a specific role

13) Which of the following benefits does the 3-system landscape recommended by SAP have?

a. Customizing and dev, testing, and prod activities take place in separate DB
environments and do not affect one another
b. Changes are tested in the QAS system and imported in the PRD system only
after verification
c. Client independent changes can be made in the DEV system w/o immediately
affecting the PRD client
d. All of the above

14) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to multiple R/3 clients?

a. All clients in the same R/3 system share the same R/3 repository and client independent customizing settings
b. No more than one client in the same R/3 system should allow changes to
client independent customizing changes.
c. If a client allows for changes to client dependent customizing, the client
should also allow for changes to Client independent customizing objects
d. All of the above.

15) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to setup of 3-system landscape

a. There is only R/3 DB for the system landscape
b. One client should allow for the automatic recording of client dependent
customizing and client independent changes.
c. All R/3 systems have the same System ID (SID)
d. All clients must have unique client numbers

16) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to the CUST client

a. It should allow changes to client independent customizing, but not repository objects
b. It should automatically record all changes to customizing settings
c. It should not allow changes to client dependent and client independent
customizing settings
d. It should allow for all changes, but not require recording of changes to change request.

17) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to the 2-system landscape

a. It is not optimal because 3 is limited opportunity to test the transport of
changes from the DEV system to the PRD system
b. It allows for changes to Customizing in the PRD system
c. It is recommended by SAP because Customizing and DEV do not impact
QAS testing.
d. All of the above

18) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to Phase implementation.

a. All CUST changes made in PRD support system must also be made in the
DEV system
 b. The system landscape requires 5 R/3 systems
c. Changes in the PRD support system do not have to be made in the DEV env
d. The system landscape needs an env that supports a PRD system with any reqd changes.

19) Which of the following statements is not valid in regard to global system landscape

a. A global template can be used for the roll out of corporate CUST settings and
DEV efforts
b. Management of different repository objects can be managed using name
spaces, and name ranges for the repository objects
c. Merging and CUST settings delivered by the corporate office with local
CUST efforts can easily be done using change requests
d. SAP provides different tools to aid the roll-out of a global template.
20) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to CUST and DEV changes?

a. all changes are recorded to task in CUST change request
b. the changes should be recorded to tasks in change requests for transport to other clients and systems
c. the changes must be manually performed in every R/3 system
d. the changes can easily be made simultaneously in multiple clients.

21) Which of the following statements in regard to change requests is false?

a. The customizing organizer and the workbench organizer are tools used to view, create and manager change request
b. A change request is a collection of tasks where developers and people performing
customizing record the changed they make.
c. All changes made as a result of IMG activities are recorded to customizing
change requests.
d. SAP recommends setting your R/3 system so that customizing changes made in the customizing and development client are automatically recorded to change requests.

22) For which of the following activities is the TMS (tcode STMS) not designed?

a. Releasing change requests
b. Viewing import queues
c. Viewing log files generated by both the export process and the import process
d. Initiating the import process

23) Which of the following statements is correct after you have successfully imported change request into the quality assurance system?

a. The change requests must be released again to be exported to the production system.
 b. The data files containing the changed objects are deleted from the transport directory
c. The change requests need to be manually added to the import queue of the production system
d. The change requests are automatically added to the import queue of the
production system.

24) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to the change requests in an import queue?

a. They are sequenced according to their change request number.’
b. They are sequenced in the order in which they were exported from the
development system
c. They are sequenced according to the name of the user who released the requests
d. They are not sequenced by default, but arranged in a variety of ways using the TMS

25) Which of the following techniques can be used to transfer application data between two PRD systems?

a. Recording transaction data to change requests
b. Using ALE to transfer application data
c. Using the client copy tool
d. All the above

26) Which of the following types of data transfer are possible within appropriate use of interface technologies?

a. Transferring legacy data to an R/3 system
b. Transferring data between R/3 clients
c. Transferring data to non-SAP systems
d. Transporting change requests to multiple R/3 systems

27) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to user master data?

a. User master data can be transported in a change request
b. User master data is unique to each R/3 system, but is shared across clients in the same R/3 system.
c. A specific client copy option enables you to distribute user master data together with authorization profile data
d. User master data included all user logon information, including the definition of authorizations and profiles

28) Which of the following clients should u copy to create new clients and ensure that all data from post installation processing is also copied?

a. a. Client 001
b. b. Client 001
c. c. Client 066

 29) Which of the following is not a SAP recommended strategy for setting up a system landscape

 a. Using a client copy from the DEV system to set up your QAS and
PRD system when the change request strategy is not an option
 b. Creating the PRD system as a combination of a client copy from the
QAS system and change request from the DEV system
c. Using the same setup strategy to establish both the QAS and PRD
systems
d. Setting up the QAS and PRD system by importing Change requests
prompted from the DEV system

30) Which of the following are correct in regard to setup of TMS?

 a. The TMS should be setup when the DEV system is installed
 b. The TMS should include all R/3 systems in the system landscape
    even if the R/3 systems do not physically exist
 c. The TMS is critical in establishing the Transport between the DEV &
    QAS system
d. The TMS should be setup before the Change request is created in the 
    CUST and DEV client

31) Which of the following is correct in regard to system copy strategy

 a. SAP recommends the system copy strategy because all CUST &
DEV objects are transferred
 b. SAP does not recommend the system copy strategy because there is
no easy to eliminate the unwanted APPLCN data
 c. A system copy is the easiest set of strategy recommended by SAP
 d. A system copy eliminates the need for change requests for the entire
R/3 implementation

32) Which of the following activities is not necessary for exporting a change request

a. Documenting every task in the request
b. Releasing every task in the change request
c. Verification of the contents of the change request by the system
    administrator
d. Unit testing the change request.

33) Which of the following is correct in regard to the task used in the change request that record CUST & DEV changes

a. Task belongs to change request
b. Task can be used by several R/3 users
c. Task are direct responsibility of the Project leader
d. Task records only client specific changes

34) Which of the following indicates that the change request has been signed off after QAS testing.

a. The change request has been released after unit testing.

 
  .

b. The change request has been successfully imported into the QAS
system
c. The change request is added into the import queue of all other R/3
systems in the system landscape
d. The project leader communicates the approval of the change request

35) Which of the following is NOT an SAP recommendation

 a. Imports into the QAS & PRD system should occur in the same
sequence.
 b. Even if the import process is automatically scripted a technical
consultant or system admin should revise the result of the import
 c. The project leader should manually add a change request to import
queue of the QAS system
 d. Change request are imported in the same sequence that they were
exported from the DEV system

36) Which of the following is SAP’s recommendation on how to rush an emergency correction into the PRD system

 a. Make the changes directly in the PRD system
 b. Transport the changes from the DEV system to QAS system & PRD
system using preliminary import
 c. Make the change and use a client copy with change request to
distribute the changes into PRD
 d. Make the change in the QAS system and transport using preliminary
import

37) Which of the following transport activities is not typically the responsibility of the system admin

a. Importing change request into all clients within R/3 system
b. Verifying the success of import process
c. Releasing the change request
d. Assisting in solving either export or import errors

38) Which of the following does SAP provide a customer support?

a. R/3 release upgrade to provide new functionality
b. Support packs to correct identified problems in a specific R/3 release
c. R/3 notes to announce errors & corrections for reported problems
d. All of the above

39) The R/3 system ID (SID)

a. Must be unique for each system sharing the same transport directory
b. Must be unique for each system in the system landscape
 c. Can start with a number
 d. Can consist of any 3 char combination

40) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to the TRANS dir

a. There can be only one TRANS dir in a system landscape
b. All R/3 systems within Transport group share a common TRANS dir
c. In a system landscape using heterogeneous platforms it is not
    possible to have a common TRANS dir
d. Only the PRD system can contain the TRANS dir

41) The Transport control program TP

a. Is stored in subdirectory bin of TRANS dir
b. Uses program R3TRANS to access the DB when transporting
changes
c. Cannot be used directly on the OS level
d. Depends on the settings of the transport profile

42) The transport profile

a. Is stored in subdirectory bin of TRANS dir
b. Contains comments and parameter settings that configure the transport control program TP
c. Is managed from within TMS as of release 4.5, but is modified with OS text editors in earlier release
d. Contains only settings that are valid for all R/3 systems in the system landscape

43) The initialization procedure of the CTO

a. Is especially required after a system copy
b. Establishes the initial value for change request Ids
c. Is not mandatory for the purpose of enabling transports
d. Is performed automatically during R/3 installation by program R3setup

44) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to the settings governing changes to repository objects

a. Only the customer name range should be modifiable in production systems.
b. Developments are possible in an R/3 system only if you have applied for a
development namespace from SAP
c. If the global change option is set to not modifiable, it nevertheless possible to make changes in certain name spaces or clients that has their change option set to modifiable.
d. The global change option should always be set to not modifiable for the quality assurance system and the production system.
45) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to the R/3 systems belonging to a transport domain?

A. They all share the same transport directory
 B. They are managed centrally using TMS
C. They belong to the same transport group
D. They must run on the same operating system and database platform

46) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to the domain controller?

A. It must be the production system
B. It occurs once in a transport domain
C. It occurs in each transport group
D. It can only be the R/3 system that was originally designated as the transport domain controller
E. It should never be the production system due to the high system load that the domain controller causes

47) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to the TMS?

A. It needs to be initialized only on the transport domain controller
B. It needs to be initialized only on the transport domain controller and the backup domain controller
C. It must be initialized on every R/3 system
D. It must be set up before you can set up transport routes

48) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to the RFC destinations for TMS connections?

A. They are generated automatically when a transport route is created
B. They are generated between the domain controller and each R/3 system in the transport domain
C. They must be established manually before you can use the TMS
D. They are generated during the TMS initialization process
E. They are only needed for importing change requests

49) How is the actual system landscape, including R/3 system roles and relationships, defined using the TMS?

A. By including all R/3 system in the transport domain
B. By configuring transport routes
C. By assigning a role to each R/3 system during the TMS initialization process
D. By designating real, virtual, and external R/3 systems

50) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to a consolidation route?
A. It is defined by an integration system and a consolidation system, and is
associated with a transport layer
B. It is created in the TMS by defining only an integration system and a
consolidation system
C. It is not necessarily required in a two-system landscape
D. It can be defined only once in a transport group

51) Which of the following statements re correct in regard to client-specific transport routes?

A. They are possible as of R/3 Release 4.0
B. They are possible only as of R/3 Release 4.5, and only if extended transport
control is activated
C. They are only allowed for target groups
D. They may not be used in conjunction with client-independent transport routes

52) After you create a new client entry in table T000, which of the following activities enables you to provide the client with data?

A. A remote client copy to populate the client with data from a client in another R/3
system
B. A client transport to import data from a client in another R/3 system
C. A local client copy to import data from a client within the same R/3 system
D. All of the above

53) Which of the following cannot be used to restrict a client from certain activities?

A. The client role
B. The client-dependent change option
C. The client ID-number
D. A client restriction
E. The client-independent change option

54) Which of the following tasks can be performed using the client copy tools?

A. Merging application data from one client into another client
B. Copying only application data from one client to another client
C. Copying only Customizing data from one client to another client
D. All of the above

55) Which of the following tasks can be performed using the client copy profiles?

A. Scheduling a client copy to occur at a time when system use is low
B. Selecting the subset of application data that will be copied when a client copy is executed
C. Providing required user authorization for the use of client tools
D. Determining the data that will be copied when a client copy is executed

56) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to table logging?

A. Table logging should be used instead of change requests whenever possible
B. Table logging provides an audit history of who made what changes and when
C. Table logging does not negatively impact system resources
D. All of the above

57) Which of the following statements is false in regard to development classes?

A. Development classes facilitate project management by grouping similar
Repository objects
B. All Repository objects are assigned to a development class
C. A development class determines the transport route that a changed Repository object will follow
 D. A local object does not need a development class

58) Which of the following kinds of changes are transported using Workbench change requests?

A. Client-independent changes
B. Modifications to SAP-delivered objects
C. Changes made using the ABAP Editor and ABAP Dictionary
D. Repairs to R/3 Repository objects that originated in another R/3 System
E. All of the above

59) Which of the following data is not contained in the object list of a task?

A. The actual change made to the objects listed in the task
B. The list of changed objects recorded to the task
C. Whether the objects recorded to the task are locked
D. The complete Object Directory entry for the object

60) Which of the following statements are correct regarding repairs and
modifications?

A. Repairs are changes to SAP-delivered objects; modifications are changes to any object that originated on an R/3 System other than the current R/3 System
B. A repair flag protects an R/3 Repository object against being overwritten by an import
C. All repairs are saved to Workbench change requests
D. A modification is a change to an SAP-delivered object
E. All of the above

61) Which of the following requirements must be met before you can change both clientdependent and client-independent Customizing settings in a client?

A. The client settings must allow for changes to client-independent Customizing objects
B. The client role must be Production
C. The system change option must be set to Modifiable
D. The client settings must allow for changes to client-dependent Customizing

62) Which of the following statements are correct when project leaders and project team members receive only the recommended authorizations?

A. Only developers can create change requests
B. Only project leaders can create change requests, and are therefore responsible for assigning project team members to change requests
C. Project team members can create and release change requests
D. Project leaders can release change requests

63) Which of the following statements are correct with regard to Project IMGs?

A. The Project IMG provides access to the Customizing activities defined for a
particular project
B. Customizing is performed in the project IMG tree structure
C. The Project IMG enables you to display project status information and document Customizing activities
D. All of the above

64) Which of the following activities are performed using the Customizing Organizer?

A. Viewing all Customizing change requests related to a particular user
B. Viewing all Workbench change requests related to a particular user
C. Viewing all change requests related to a particular user
D. Managing change requests you own or reviewing change requests in which you have assigned tasks

65) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to Customizing?

A. All Customizing activities in the IMG activities can be transported
B. All changes resulting from IMG activities can be transported
C. All Customizing changes are automatically recorded to a change request if the client change option is set to Automatic recording of changes
D. A Customizing activity may involve the creation of client-independent objects and therefore requires Workbench change request

66) Which of the following activities are performed using client comparison tools?

A. Comparing the customizing settings of two R/3 clients in the same R/3 System or in a different R/3 System
B. Adjusting the Customizing differences between two different R/3 clients
C. Transporting Customizing settings into the production client
D. Comparing the objects listed in the object list of a change request with an R/3 client

67) Which of the following is a prerequisite for copying client-dependent changes to a unit test client using a client copy according to a transport request (Transaction SCC1)?

A. The change request has been released
B. The tasks have been released, but the change request has not
C. The tasks have been released after successful unit testing by the owner of the task
D. The change request has not been released

68) Which of the following are the results of releasing a task?

A. A data file is created in the transport directory and contains the objects recorded
in the change request
B. The object list and documentation for the task are copied to the change request
C. All objects recorded in the task are locked
D. You can no longer save changes to that task

69) Which of the following are result of releasing and exporting a change request?
A. A data file is created in the transport directory to contain copies of the objects recorded in the change request
B. Versions are created in the version database for all R/3 Repository objects in the object list of the change request
C. All repairs recorded in the change request are confirmed
D. You can no longer save changes to that change request

70) When you release a Customizing change request, you have the option to do which of the following?

A. Release the change request to another Customizing change request
B. Schedule the release of the change request for a late time
C. Release the change request to a transportable change request
D. Initiate immediate release and export

71) Which of the following is a prerequisite for releasing a transportable change request?

A. There are no syntax errors in the ABAP programs recorded to the change request
B. You must own the tasks in the change request
C. All Repository objects in the change request are locked by the change request
D. The change request has documentation

72) The export process initiates which of the following activities?

A. The creation of files in the transport directory
B. The automatic import of change requests into the target system—for example, the quality assurance system
C. The addition of the exported change request to the import buffer of the target system
D. The deletion of the change request within the R/3 System

73) Which of the following activities result in a version history for all Repository objects?

A. A Repository object is recorded to a change request
B. Change requests are imported into an R/3 System, and the transport parameter vers_at_imp is activated
C. A task containing a Repository object is released
D. A change request containing a Repository object is released

74) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to import queues?

A. Import queues are the TMS representation of the import buffer on the operating system level
B. You have to manipulate import queues to transport change requests
C. Import queues should be closed before starting an import using TMS
D. You can import only an entire import queue

75) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to preliminary imports?

A. SAP recommends using preliminary imports rather than imports of entire queues.
B. Preliminary imports should be performed only in exceptional cases
C. Change requests imported as preliminary imports remain in the import queue

D. Change requests are deleted from the import queue after preliminary imports. This prevents them from being imported gain with the next import of the entire import queue

76) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to imports into an R/3 System?

A. Imports can be performed only by using the start import functionality in the TMS
B. Imports can be performed only by using tp commands on the operating system level to prepare the import queue and then using the start import functionality inthe TMS
C. Imports can be performed only by using tp commands at the operating system level
D. Imports can be performed by using either a tp command on the operating system level or the TMS import functionality

77) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to transports between different transport groups?

A. They are not possible
B. They can be performed only by using tp on the operating system level with special options
C. They can be performed using the TMS with special options provided by the
expert mode
D. They require you to adjust the corresponding import queues

78) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to transports between different transport domains?

A. They are not possible
B. They require you to create a virtual system and a virtual transport directory
C. They require you to configure identical transport groups within the different transport domains
D. They require you to create external systems and an external transport directory
E. They require you to adjust the corresponding import queues.

79) Which of the following statements re correct in regard to the transport control program tp?

A. To perform imports, tp must always be used directly on the operating system level
B. SAP recommends that you use the TMS instead of tp to perform imports
C. tp is responsible for exporting and importing objects from and to R/3 Systems
D. tp does not observe the sequence of change requests in the import queue when performing imports

80) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to import queues and import buffers?

A. Import queues are TMS representations in R/3 of the import buffer files on the operating system level
B. Import queues and import buffers are completely independent of each other
C. Import buffers have to be manipulated before imports can be performed on the operating system level
D. Manipulating import buffers may cause serious inconsistencies and should be performed only in exceptional cases.

81) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to the import options formerly known as unconditional modes?

A. Import options cannot be used when imports are performed on the operating system level using tp.
B. Import options are used to cause specific rules of the Change and Transport System (CTS) to be ignored
C. Import options must be used when importing into multiple clients using tp.
D. Import options can be selected in the TMS using the expert mode

82) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to the sequence of processing steps tp follows when performing imports?

A. tp collectively processes each import step for all change requests in an import queue before proceeding with the next import step
B. tp processes all import steps for a single request before proceeding to the next change request
C. The processing sequence followed by tp ensures that when a change request with a faulty object is followed in the import queue by a change request with the corrected object, the faulty object will not affect the runtime environment of the target system
D. tp imports and activates ABAP Dictionary structures prior to the main import phase to ensure that the current structures are able to receive new data during the main import phase.

83) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to troubleshooting imports?

A. In R/3, you cannot display log files that do not depend on a specific request. For example, you cannot display log files related to generic import steps, such as structure conversion.
B. SAP recommends that you check the SLOG file and the ALOG file before
checking the single step log files.
C. By default, all return codes greater than eight cause tp to abort a running import
D. tp is the only transport tool that uses return codes.

84) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to buffer synchronization?

A. Transport activities do not affect buffer synchronization
B. Imports affect buffer synchronization even in central R/3 systems
C. R3trans can invalidate buffer content
D. Importing data into a production system can significantly impact performance, because some buffer content may be invalidated and reloaded. This causes high system load
 E. Importing programs and ABAP Dictionary data cannot cause inconsistencies in the target system, even if the programs or data affect running programs and their environment

85) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to the interaction between transport tools?

A. During exports, tp calls R3trans to access the database of the source system and
extract the objects to be transported
B. tp triggers the transport daemon RDDIMPDP in R/3 using the operating system tool sapevt
C. Using the tables TRBAT and TRJOB, tp communicates with ABAP programs
involved in the transport process
D. tp communicates with only RDDIMPDP

86) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to the R/3 Release strategy?

A. Functional Releases are automatically shipped to all customers
B. Correction Releases provide only corrections and no new functionality with
respect to the previous R/3 Functional Release
C. Functional Releases receive only limited OCS maintenance; that is, only very urgent corrections are available as Support Packages
D. R/3 Release upgrades are possible only for Correction Releases

87) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to Support Packages?

A. Support Packages change the SAP standard of your R/3 System in advance of the next R/3 Release upgrade
B. You can apply all types of Support Packages to all R/3 installations, regardless of the components used in the installation
C. Support Packages are available only to customers who are participants in the First Customer Shipment (FCS) program
D. Different types of Support Packages may be required for R/3 Installations with different components

88) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to the SAP Patch Manager?

A. The SAP Patch Manager ensures that Support Packages are applied in the correct sequence
B. The SAP Patch Manager does not check whether the type of Support Package you wish to apply is appropriate for your R/3 installation. It is up to you to decide whether, for example, you require a Conflict Resolution Transport.
C. The SAP Patch Manager does not offer you the chance to protect SAP objects that you have modified. These objects are automatically overwritten.
D. The SAP Patch Manager automatically prompts you to call the modification
adjustment Transactions SPDD or SPAU if necessary

89) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to R/3 Release upgrades?
A. Objects in the customer namespace are not overwritten
  
B. A Repository switch is the replacement of your current R/3 Repository by the R/3 Repository in the new R/3 Release
C. All customer modifications to ABAP Dictionary object are lost
D. Customer modifications to SAP objects that you want to preserve must be
transferred to the new Release through the modification adjustment process

90) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to the modification adjustment process?

A. Transaction SPAU is used for most ABAP Dictionary objects
B. Transaction SPDD is used for most ABAP Dictionary objects
C. Not using Transaction SPDD where applicable may cause data loss
D. During modification adjustment, you must choose to return to the SAP standard


Tuesday, 19 February 2013

SAP Basis/Netweaver Certification Question Set 6


Please note most of these questions are gathered by me from students who have already taken certification exam and from google.  Hope you will find these useful !! All the best!

Oracle Database related questions from SAP Basis/Netweaver Certification point of view


1. When is data is written to the Oracle transaction logs (redo logs)?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A.     Sometimes before, sometimes after being written to the database files.
B.     After being written to the database files.
C.     At the same time as being written to the database files.
D.     As specified by the parameter "dblg_after" in the ORACLE initialization file.
E.     Before being written to the database files.


2. During an offline backup, which customer files does sapdba save to ensure that the Oracle database can be restored to an internally consistent state?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A.     Oracle executable files.
B.     Oracle database transaction log files and offline redo log files.
C.     Offline redo log files and the R/3 SYSLOG file.
D.     Tablespace data files, database transaction log files, and the database control file.
E.     Database transaction log files and R/3 transport structures.


3. During an online database backup, which customer files must be saved to ensure that the Oracle database can be restored to an internally consistent state?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A.     Tablespace data files, the database control file, and all database redo logs written during the online backup.
B.     Oracle online redo log files and the database control file.
C.     Offline redo log files, the database control file, and the Oracle executables.
D.     The Oracle executables, the database parameter file, and the tablespace data files.
E.     The tablespace data files, the database control file, and the database parameter file.


4. What is the primary function of the directory $ORACLE_HOME/sapbackup?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A.     Storing database transaction logs (redo logs) temporarily before they are automatically written to tape.
B.     Providing a work area for R/3 Instance tasks.
C.     Storing database backups which are written to disk.
D.     Storing the offline redo log files.
E.     Providing a work area for R/3 database utilities during database reorganizations.


5. When an Oracle database is used by an R/3 System with SAP System ID C11, what is the name of the file for brbackup and brarchive parameters?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A.     initC11.ini
B.     initC11.sap
C.     initC11.ora
D.     sapdba.ini
E.     initC11.dba



6. Which of the following statements is correct in regard to using the brbackup command  to backup database and non-database files?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A.     Brbackup is an improvement over all operating system level backup methods and is recommended for regular backups.
B.     Brbackup must be called from sapdba.
C.     Non-SAP and non-Oracle subdirectories are backed-up through recursive calls.
D.     Non-database files must be specified with their complete, absolute file names.
E.     Brbackup's "all" option is used to backup the complete operating system, R/3 instance, and the Oracle database.


7. What is the probable cause of the sapdba error indicated in this screen?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A.     An offline backup has been started but tablespaces are missing.
B.     Users are still logged on to the R/3 instance.
C.     The backup has aborted because there is no tape in the tape device.
D.     The tape has not been initialized.
E.     The backup has been terminated because brarchive is already running.


8. Which of the following statements are correct in regard to using a single run of BRBACKUP to save both the database files and the offline redo log files?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A.     BRARCHIVE is started immediately after the database backup is complete: no further intervention by the database administrator is necessary.
B.     This technique can only be used for offline database backups, not online backups.
C.     The database backup and the backup of the offline redo log files must fit on one tape because changing tapes is not supported.
D.     You can backup the database using multiple tape devices in parallel.
E.     The tapes used must have been initialized by BRBACKUP.


9. SAP recommends checking the database for corrupt data blocks at least once per backup cycle.
How can this be done?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A.     You can run the ABAP report RSORABLK at times of low system load.
B.     You can export the complete database using the Oracle export utility.
C.     You can run the command "sapdba -analyze PSAP%".
D.     You can run the command "brbackup -t offline -m all -verify".
E.     You can run the command "brrestore -w use_dbv" on a previously performed full database backup.


10. Which of the following strategies are supported by SAPDBA?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A.     Standby database
B.     Split mirror backup
C.     Recovery of a lost table based on an export.
D.     Two-level backup: first to disk, then to tape
E.     Replication database



11. What is the primary purpose of the directory $ORACLE_HOME/sapreorg (Windows NT: $ORACLE_HOME\sapreorg)?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A.     Storing the offline redo log files.
B.     Providing a work area for R/3 dialog instance tasks.
C.     Storing online database backups instead of writing them to tape.
D.     Storing transaction log files.
E.     Providing a work area for R/3 database utilities.


12. Which of the following statements is correct in regard to OPS$connect?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A.     OPS$connect authorization allows an operating system user to connect to the database without being prompted for a password.
B.     OPS$connect is an Oracle command enabling whoever executes it to administer the database without using svrmgrl.
C.     OPS$connect is used in Oracle Parallel Server installations to enable remote database connections over a LAN.
D.     OPS$connect authorization is required for all users connecting to the Oracle database.
E.     OPS$connect enables the R/3 saposcol process to communicate and exchange data with the Oracle database.


13. What happens during the startup of an Oracle database?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A.     The SGA is created in shared memory according to the parameter settings in the configuration file init<SID>.ora.
B.     The Oracle background and shadow processes are created.
C.     In the mount phase, all copies of the control file are opened.
D.     If necessary, Oracle automatically performs an instance recovery.
E.     As the last step, the online redo log files are cleared and the data files are opened.


14. What happens during the shutdown of an Oracle database?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A.     When you shutdown the database with the NORMAL option, the database system disconnects all users before shutting down the database.
B.     When you shutdown the database with the NORMAL or IMMEDIATE option, the database system writes a checkpoint before shutting down the database.
C.     When you shutdown the database with the ABORT or IMMEDIATE option, open transactions are rolled back before the database is shut down.
D.     When you shut down the database with the ABORT option, the R/3 system is shut down, too.
E.     Shutting down the database with the ABORT option always requires an instance recovery at the next database startup.


15. Which of the following commands does SAP recommend running on a weekly basis to update table statistics used by the Oracle cost-based optimizer?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A.     sapdba -analyze PSAP%
B.     analyze table <table name> estimate statistics sample 10 percent
C.     sapdba -checkopt PSAP%
D.     sapdba -analyze DBSTATCO
E.     update statistics medium



16. Which of the following statements express part of the SAP-recommended strategy for creating and updating the table statistics used by the cost-based optimizer?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A.     No statistics are created for R/3 pool and cluster tables.
B.     Statistics are created for all transparent tables that have no statistics.
C.     The table DBSTATC can be used to trigger an exact computation of the statistics of specific tables.
D.     The update for table statistics refreshes all transparent tables.
E.     The table DBSTATC can be used to detect which table statistics need to be refreshed.


17. Which of the following statements are correct in regard to index reorganization using SAPDBA?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A.     The reorganization can be done online using the "ALTER INDEX REBUILD" function without danger to data security and consistency.
B.     The reorganization can be done by calling the Oracle export/import utilities through the SAPDBA reorganization menu.
C.     The reorganization can be accelerated with the help of the Oracle PARALLEL QUERY functionality.
D.     SAPDBA prompts you to perform a backup before reorganizing indexes.
E.     You can do a test import before the old index is dropped.


18. Which of the following statements are correct in regard to table reorganization using SAPDBA?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A.     The reorganization can be done using the 'CREATE TABLE AS SELECT' function.
B.     SAPDBA offers using the Oracle SQL*Loader for the data import.
C.     Reorganization of a table always includes the reorganization of all its indexes.
D.     Reorganization of one large table can be performed by parallel processing using the  tool R/3chop and specifying multiple dump destinations for the data export.
E.     After a reorganization with SAPDBA you should immediately update the table statistics needed by the cost-based optimizer.


19. What is the name of the alert log file for an Oracle database used by an
R/3 System with SAP system ID "C11"?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A.     ora_log_C11.log
B.     ora_log_C11.trc
C.     orasrv.log
D.     alert_C11.trc
E.     alert_C11.log


20. What happens if a table wants to allocate another extent but there is not enough contiguous free space in the tablespace?
A.     Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
B.     The extent is allocated in another tablespace.
C.     The extent is distributed across the free space that is available.
D.     The Oracle error message ORA 1653 is sent to the file SYSLOG and to the ABAP short dump.
E.     Oracle dynamically reorganizes the tablespace to make all available space contiguous.
F.     The database switches into maintenance mode and sends a system message to the database administrator.



21. Based upon the archive status display shown, what may be concluded?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A.     The directory for the offline redo log files is almost out of space.
B.     The R/3 central instance is not installed on the same computer as the database.
C.     There are 206 database transaction logs and 19 offline redo log files.
D.     The directory SAPARCH is approximately 20 MB in size.
E.     There are no obvious problems.


22. Which Oracle component dynamically maintains information about the status of the database redo logs, the database mode, and the names and paths of database files, and is essential during a database recovery?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A.     The Oracle parameter file, init<SID>.ora.
B.     Each tablespace data file contains this data for the whole database.
C.     The SGA definition file, sgadef<SID>.def.
D.     The Oracle control file, cntrl<SID>.dbf.
E.     The sapdba parameter file, init<SID>.dba.


23. When the R/3 update task aborts with an Oracle error ORA1653 - failure to allocate an extent for a table in a specific tablespace - what action needs to be taken?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A.     The tablespace should be reorganized.
B.     The tablespace size should be increased by adding a new data file.
C.     The table should be reorganized.
D.     The storage parameter MAXEXTENTS must be increased.
E.     After the cause of the error has been removed, the R/3 update task must be reactivated.


24. What action needs to be taken when a table tries to extend beyond the number of defined MAXEXTENTS?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A.     You should run the command "sapdba -next".
B.     The value of MAXEXTENTS must be increased manually by the database administrator.
C.     If the table has already allocated 505 extents, the table must be reorganized.
D.     With Oracle8 the value of MAXEXTENTS is automatically increased. No user action is required.
E.     With Oracle8 no error occurs, because tables are allowed to have an unlimited number of extents. No user action is required.


25. What is indicated by the Oracle database message "Checkpoint not complete" displayed in this screen?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A.     The database was corrupted because a checkpoint could not complete.
B.     A log switch had to wait for a checkpoint to complete.
C.     There was a temporary database standstill while waiting for a checkpoint to complete.
D.     An archiver stuck situation occurred that prevented the ongoing checkpoint from completing.
E.     The database system tried to reuse an online redo log that had not yet been copied to the archive directory by the ARCH process.



26. Which of the following checks are useful for database performance monitoring?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.

A.     Checking that the CBO statistics are refreshed once a week according to the strategy recommended by SAP.
B.     Checking that the archive directory contains enough free space.
C.     Checking the data buffer quality.
D.     Checking the shared cursor cache for expensive SQL statements.
E.     Checking for tables with more than 100 extents.


27. An instance error occurs when one or more Oracle background processes become corrupted.
As the database administrator, what action should you take?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A.     Shutdown abort and startup open. The SMON process will use the current redo log files and checkpoint information from the control files to execute an automatic instance recovery upon database startup.
B.     Shutdown the operating system and reinstall the Oracle software.
C.     Call the Oracle hotline, as this is a serious error.
D.     Shutdown the operating system and turn all hardware off. After the hardware cools off, start everything up again and execute Orainst using the repair option.
E.     Restore all missing files, apply the offline redo logs, update the control files, and execute the startup open command.


28. The R/3 System Oracle database has four online redo logs, also known as database transaction logs. Each online redo log has a mirrored copy. What is the effect of a log file switch?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A.     The current online redo log is copied to its mirrored copy, then the next online redo log becomes open for writing.
B.     The database alternates between writing to the online and offline redo log files.
C.     The database switches between writing to the original redo log files and the mirrored redo log files.
D.     The current online redo log is closed and the next online redo log becomes open for writing. The ARCH process is triggered to begin backing up the recently closed redo log.
E.     The current R/3 SYSLOG file is copied to the saparch directory and a new SYSLOG file is created.


29. Which of the following statements is correct in regard to online Oracle database backups?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A.     Users may only read data and may not enter data until after the backup is done.
B.     The database must be running in archivelog mode.
C.     The tablespace data files and control file comprise the complete online backup and are all that is necessary for restoring the database to a consistent status.
D.     Database transaction logs (online redo logs) are not written during online backups.
E.     Online database backups are not supported by Oracle.


30. In an Oracle database with system ID C11, if tablespace PSAPBTABD is extended by 200 MB by adding another data file, which of the following statements is correct?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A.     To maintain database recoverability, all data files for PSAPBTABD and the database control file should be backed up.
B.     If a full database restore is performed, the new tablespace data file is automatically created based on information in the file initC11.ora.
C.     To register the existence of the new file in the Oracle internal system tables, the database must be restarted.
D.     To maintain database recoverability, the data files for PSAPBTABD, the control file, and the redo logs must be backed up.
E.     To create a clean copy of the complete database, an R3SETUP database copy should be run.


31. Which of the following statements are correct in regard to the options in the SAPDBA restore/recovery menu?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A.     Option "c - Reset database" does not allow database recovery after restoring the backup.
B.     For option "c - Reset database", only offline backups can be used, not online backups.
C.     For option "a- Partial restore and complete recovery", SAPDBA detects and restores only the damaged data files.
D.     After using the option "d - Restore one tablespace", only complete database recovery is possible, no point-in-time recovery.
E.     For option "b - Full restore and recovery", only full online or full offline backups can be used, no partial backups.


32. When planning the distribution of the database transaction logs, mirrored transaction logs, archived transaction logs, and tablespace data files over multiple logical device groups, what is the highest priority?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A.     Better performance through more hardware.
B.     More flexibility in case of hardware failure.
C.     Easier database backups and quicker restores.
D.     To make the system physically more modular for transport reasons.
E.     Higher data security and easier administration.


33. Which of the following oracle parameters should never be modified in the file init<SID>.ora?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A.     db_name
B.     control_files
C.     shared_pool_size
D.     db_block_size
E.     db_block_buffers


34. Which one of the following configurations has the least impact on data security and performance?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A.     Operating system swap and Oracle tablespace data files installed on the same physical disk(s).
B.     Operating system swap and Oracle database transaction logs (redo logs) installed on the same disk(s).
C.     Operating system swap and SAP kernel (executable files) installed on the same physical disk(s).
D.     Operating system swap and the /usr/sap directory installed on the same physical disk(s).
E.     Oracle offline redo log files accessed over a shared or Network File System directory connection.


35. To enlarge the shared memory for the Oracle database instance, which of the following Oracle parameters should be modified in the file init<SID>.ora?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A.     db_block_buffers
B.     log_archive_dest
C.     shared_pool_size
D.     rollback_segments
E.     db_block_size



36. Which of the following statements is correct in regard to the directory SAPARCH?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A.     A SAPARCH of approximately 300 MB is large enough to satisfy all R/3 customer requirements.
B.     The size of SAPARCH is not critical; it does not matter, for example, if it is created relatively small to save money on hardware.
C.     SAPARCH must be at least as large as the largest database table.
D.     SAPARCH must be at least as large as the largest tablespace.
E.     SAPARCH should have several hundred MB for a demonstration or test system, and be considerably larger (at least 1 GB) for a production system.


37. Based on SAP configuration guidelines for data security and performance, which of the following statements is correct in regard to the configuration revealed by this screen?
(For Windows NT, the directory delimiters appear as " \ ".)
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A.     This represents a secure configuration. Nothing could be done to improve the distribution of components.
B.     Mirror logs A and B represent a potential data security problem. The database is not capable of being recovered.
C.     The database redo logs on device 3 are in danger of accidentally being overwritten by the operating system swap installed there. This represents a potential data security problem.
D.     Disk I/O on device 4 may be unreasonably slow due to the mirror logs A and B being on the same device as the database data disks.
E.     The fact that SAPARCH is installed with the R/3 Transport structures on device 2 represents a potential data security problem.


38. Based on SAP configuration guidelines for data security and performance, which of the following statements is correct in regard to the configuration revealed by this screen?
(For Windows NT, the directory delimiters appear as " \ ".)
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A.     This configuration represents a potential data security problem because having disks configured for RAID 1 and disks configured for RAID 5 on one computer may lead to hardware failure.
B.     The database data files are installed in an non-recommended RAID 5 configuration, potentially causing data security problems.
C.     Installing the SAPARCH directory and the R/3 transport directory on the same device represents a potential data security problem.
D.     Installing the Oracle database transaction logs, origlogA and origlogB, on the same device represents a critical data security problem.
E.     This represents a secure configuration. The distribution of system components is reasonable in regard to performance.


39. Based on SAP configuration guidelines for data security and performance, which of the following statements is correct in regard to the configuration revealed by this screen?
(For Windows NT, the directory delimiters appear as " \ ".)
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A.     This configuration meets SAP data-security standards. The distribution of system components is reasonable in regard to performance.
B.     A significant performance improvement could be achieved by relocating origlogA and mirrlogB together on one disk, and origlogB and mirrlogA together on another disk.
C.     The installation of the directory SAPREORG on the same disk as mirrlogA and mirrlogB represents a potential data security problem.
D.     OriglogA and origlogB may increase in size exponentially, and should not be installed on the same disk as the $ORACLE_HOME directory.
E.     Installing the components sapdata1 to sapdata6 on disks of 4 GB is a waste of hardware because these components never increase in size.




40. Which of the following kinds of information are provided by the command "sapdba -check"?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A.     Information about the last successful or failed backups.
B.     Complete path names and file sizes for all data files.
C.     Space-critical objects.
D.     The tables and indexes with the most free space.
E.     Values of all active database configuration parameters.