Please note most of these questions are gathered by me from students who have already taken certification exam and from google.
Hope you will find these useful !! All the best!
1. Response Time:
a. Starts when a user request enters the dispatcher queue.
b. Includes the marginal network time from the user to the dispatcher queue.
c. Includes Roll-in and Roll-out time.
d. Includes the network time from the R/3 instance to the database.
e. Does not include CPU time.
2. Wait Time:
a. Starts when user request is stored in the dispatcher queue.
b. Ends when the request starts to be processed.
c. Is the time the request sits in the dispatcher queue.
d. Is measured in microseconds.
e. Cannot be measured.
3. Load Time:
a. Is the amount of time occupying the work process.
b. Is equal to Response Time – Wait Time.
c. Is the time needed to load and generate objects like ABAP source code.
d. Is equal to Response Time – (Database Request Time + Wait time).
e. Is equal to database request time + wait time.
4. Database Request Time:
a. Is equal to Response Time – (Load Time + Wait time).
b. Starts when a database request passes through the database interface.
c. Ends when the database interface has delivered the result.
d. Is the amount of time occupying the workprocesses.
e. Includes wait time.
5. A LOAD REPORT is displayed on SM50 when:
a. A request is sent to the dispatcher.
b. ABAP source code is read from the database and generated (to the PXA).
c. A request passes through the database interface.
d. A request is locked by a dialog workprocess.
e. ABAP programs create short dumps.
6. The following information is available from the Process Overview – SM50:
a. The Operating System Process ID for each workprocess.
b. The type of workprocess, including DIA, UPD, BTC, ENQ, MSG, SPO.
c. The Semaphore resource being used.
d. Top 40 CPU processes.
e. Average response time.
7. Which of the following may indicate performance problems in terms of Average Response time?
a. Average CPU time: less than 40% of average response time
b. Average wait time: less than 10% of average response time
c. Average load time: greater than 40% of average response time
d. Average DB request time: less than 40% of average response time
e. Average roll-in time. greater than 20% of average response time
8. Significantly high wait time may be an indication that:
a. The enqueue workprocess is idle.
b. There is a backlog of LOAD REPORTS.
c. There are too many idle dialog workprocesses.
d. There are too many workprocesses for the Dispatcher to service on one R/3 Instance.
e. More work processes are needed to service all the request in the request queue.
9. The following information is available from the Workload Monitor – ST03:
a. Average Response Time for dialog workprocesss
b. Load Averages
c. Average Wait Time
d. Database Request Time Average
e. Average Response Time for Update workprocesses .
10. The following information is available from the Database Monitor – ST04:
a. Data Buffer Size.
b. Data Buffer Quality.
c. Recursive Calls
d. Database Request Time Average
e. Parsed SQL requests held in the database cache.
11. The Transaction Profile can be found in:
a. The Process Overview
b. The Database Monitor
c. The Workload Monitor
d. The Operating System Monitor
12. The Program Buffer can have a negative impact on dialog performance if:
a. The Program Executable Area is completely fragmented.
b. Gaps equal Freespace
c. Every new object loaded into the buffer displaces an object that is already in the buffer.
d. The number of object swaps continues to increase.
e. The abap/buffersize is not configured the same on each R/3 instance in the system.
13. Which of the following is true regarding the Table Buffers?
a. The three table buffers are Full, Generic and Single Record.
b. All read for updates bypass table buffers.
c. R/3 Table buffering is more efficient than reading from the database, because more than one table index can be used.
d. All R/3 table buffer accesses can be analyzed using an SQL trace.
e. Invalidations are data entry errors.
14. Which of the following are good candidates for table buffering?
a. Any table that is less than 1 MB.
b. Application tables because they are frequently accessed.
c. Many Customizing tables since they are typically small, static tables.
d. Any customer developed table that uses more than one index.
e. Any transparent table.
15. Which of the following use local memory ?
d. Total heap.
16. Which of the following use shared memory ?
c. Extended memory.
e. Roll area.
17. Which of the following are true statements ?
a. Roll-first is a portion of the total Roll Area.
b. The amount of extended memory that one dialog workprocess can use is limited by the user quota (ztta/roll-extension), which can never be equal to or greater than the total amount of extended memory.
c. Virtual Memory is comprised of both physical memory and OS swap.
d. A dialog workprocess is dedicated to one transaction when it goes to PRIV mode.
e. When a transaction exceeds Total Heap area, an ABAP short dump will occur.
18. Which of the following are true regarding abap/heaplimit?:
a. An ABAP dump will always occur when a dialog work process reaches the abap/heaplimit.
b. When a dialog workprocess reaches abap/heaplimit, it is flagged and the workprocess is killed (a new PID is created) after the transaction has completed.
c. The abap/heaplimit is the total amount of HEAP memory that a dialog workprocess can use.
d. Abap/heaplimit is a portion of the total abap/buffersize.
e. Abap/buffersize determines the size of the abap/heaplimit.
19. Which of the following are true?:
a. In non-dialog processing, extended memory cannot be used until all of the Roll-first is used.
b. In non-dialog processing, HEAP-NonDia is used before extended memory is used.
c. In non-dialog processing, the Roll Buffer and the Page Buffer are used to hold temporary ABAP tables.
d. The biggest difference between dialog and non-dialog memory management is that non-dialog workprocesses do not use Roll-area.
e. Background workprocesses and dialog workprocesses compete for space in the Roll buffer during peak activity on the system.
20. Important statistics displayed in the Database Monitor (ST04) include:
a. Logical reads
b. Physical reads
c. Data buffer size and quality
d. Shared pool size and quality
e. Invalidations in the R/3 table buffers
21. Which of the following are true statements?
a. Expensive SQL statements may reduce the performance of the entire R/3 system.
b. Indexes improve data access for tables, including those that are loaded in R/3 generic table buffers.
c. Physical reads are blocks that are read from the database buffer.
d. An SQL statement is efficient if many blocks are read to find the required records.
e. Logical reads are blocks that are read from the database buffer.
22. Which of the following are good rules for creating secondary indexes?:
a. Use few fields in the index (less than 5).
b. Use only non-selective fields.
c. Position the most selective fields at the end of the index.
d. Position the most selective fileds at the beginning of the index.
e. Use as many fields as possible to narrow down the search.
23. The SQL Request area in ST04 contains:
a. The number of SQL statements that have accessed R/3 table buffers.
b. Parsed SQL statements that have passed through the database interface.
c. Only the SELECT statements generated by Oracle processes.
d. All database exclusive locks.
e. Only the SELECT statements in the REDO log buffer.
24. The following will set a database lock:
a. SELECT FOR UPDATE.
b. Any ABAP program that executes a native SQL command.
c. Only the DELETE statements processed by Oracle.
d. Only SQL statements that access R/3 Basis system tables such as DDNTT.
e. All table scans
25. Transactions ST10 and DB05 can be used to :
a. determine detailed workload statistics (STAT)
b. detect incorrectly buffered tables in the R/3 table buffers
c. determine the relevant users on the system
d. identify dispatcher bottlenecks
e. identify CPU bottlenecks
a. is basically an interface service which provides high level function modules for exchanging data between two or more systems.
b. has its own data storage tables.
c. requires an EDI subsystem
d. can only support R/3 systems.
e. can be used to link R/3 Systems that are independent of each other.
27. IDOC’s can be created:
a. only via transaction SPRO.
b. by change pointers.
c. by message entry for deferred processing.
e. only via transaction BALE.
a. are a part of SAP’s functionality.
b. are used by ALE for communication between sender and receiver.
c. require FTP.
d. are called transactional since a number of function modules are allowed to be bundled into a single LUW.
e. are only used by ALE for customizing integrity checks.
29. Which of the following are IDOC processing options? :
a. Dispatch Control.
c. Processing mode.
d. Unit transfer type.
30 . An IDOC :
a. is a transparent table.
b. may used by ALE only if an EDI subsystem exists on the network.
c. may only contain master data.
d. is always created on the receiving partner system using an external program.
e. stands for intermediate document.
31 . The sender and receiver of the IDOC are defined in the:
a. IDOC data records
b. IDOC control record
d. IDOC status record
32. From SAP’s perspective, a LOGICAL SYSTEM corresponds to a:
a. a database.
b. a client.
c. a company.
d. a remote system.
e. a remote database.
33. ALE customizing is done using:
a. the BABI generator
b. transaction SALE
d. an external warehouse management (WM) system
e. SAP’s Business Framework
34. Which of the following are true?
a. For performance reasons the TRFC queue should never be reorganized.
b. The TRFC queue consists of tables on both the sender and receiver of the communication.
c. The TRFC queue cannot be monitored in R/3 since it is an external process.
d. TRFC refers to transactional RFC’s.
e. IDOC transfers between R/3 systems using TRFC’s do not require a logon and password.